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If cosA÷2=1÷2(p+1÷p) then prove that: cosA=1÷2(p^2+1÷p^2)​
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If cosA÷2=1÷2(p+1÷p) then prove that: cosA=1÷2(p^2+1÷p^2)​

User Michael Rutherfurd
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I forgot the answer
User ABlaze
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