Register
Why did the Founding Fathers subject elected officials to rule of law? A. to make the state more powerful that the federal government B. to prevent abuse of power C.to weaken the Constitution D. to punish
193k views
3 votes
Why did the Founding Fathers subject elected officials to rule of law?

A. to make the state more powerful that the federal government
B. to prevent abuse of power
C.to weaken the Constitution
D. to punish representatives

PLZZZZZZZZZZZZ HELP

User Kevin Meyer
by
7.6k points

2 Answers

1 vote

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

User Yensheng
by
8.1k points
7 votes

Answer:

B. To prevent a use of power.

User EternallyCurious
by
9.0k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Matt Dryden
asked Oct 21, 2022 156k views
Which country wanted to punish and weaken germany after ww1
Matt Dryden asked Oct 21, 2022
by Matt Dryden
7.9k points
2 answers
5 votes
156k views
User Rogers
asked Jan 14, 2023 125k views
Wanted to punish and weaken Germany
Rogers asked Jan 14, 2023
by Rogers
8.6k points
1 answer
23 votes
125k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.5m questions

12.2m answers

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What were the positive and negative effects of Egypt being imperialized by Britain.
Link Copied!