Keshawn thinks that the graph of a function f(x) and its inverse f -1 (x) will always intersect. Give a counterexample to disprove his statement

asked Jan 12, 2023 210k views

12 votes

by Naota

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6 votes

So I rlly don’t know it but I need help like my life is falling apart on me lol

Dave McLure answered Jan 17, 2023

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