Answer:
BI/BII = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
The magnetic field due to a solenoid is given by the following formula:
![B = \mu nI\\](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/physics/college/xjr992suc7p0jjtybsa8za8guhoqdrx07k.png)
where,
B = Magnetic Field due to solenoid
μ = permeability of free space
n = No. of turns per unit length
I = current passing through the solenoid
Now for the first solenoid:
![B_1 = \mu n_1I_1 \\](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/physics/college/jvgro4btkdfa2i8gtucd4oqdvfb450lezx.png)
For the second solenoid:
![B_2 = \mu n_2I_2\\](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/physics/college/hnte1lllwcuw7lbj4td4g6yhi0d0lg5aun.png)
Dividing both equations:
![(B_1)/(B_2) = (\mu n_1I_1)/(\mu n_2I_2)\\](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/physics/college/ynnwyy154zljc96dhjxu9q566w3hej0qv5.png)
here, no. of turns and the current passing through each solenoid is same:
n₁ = n₂ and I₁ = I₂
Therefore,
![(B_1)/(B_2) = (\mu nI)/(\mu nI)\\](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/physics/college/d1lmhjakbwqmjs283ds7x9gnaemwmxegbv.png)
BI/BII = 1