Having Freckles (F) is dominant over not having Freckles (f). If a person that is FF has children with a person that is FF, what is the probability of their children will have Freckle a 0% b 25% c 50%

asked Feb 7, 2022 170k views

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7 votes

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because there isn't a non-dominent gene.

Stobbej answered Feb 11, 2022

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