X(x – 4) and x2 - 4x define the same function.

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17 votes

Answer:

Yes, because
x(x -4) is equivalent to
x^2-4x

Explanation:

x(x -4) and
x^2-4x

x(x -4) = x^2 - 4x

Hope this helps!

Sharma Vikram answered Aug 11, 2023

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