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X(x – 4) and x2 - 4x define the same function.
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10 votes
X(x – 4) and x2 - 4x define the same function.

User RicardoNava
by
6.3k points

1 Answer

9 votes

Answer:

Yes, because
x(x -4) is equivalent to
x^2-4x

Explanation:


x(x -4) and
x^2-4x


x(x -4) = x^2 - 4x

Hope this helps!

User Hardik Gupta
by
6.1k points
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