227k views
0 votes
The “unstable equilibrium” referred to by Bismarck in the first paragraph is best explained by which of the following developments in European politics?

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer: The map of Europe and the distribution of power in 1871 was very different from that devised at Vienna in 1814–15.

Step-by-step explanation:

User Johnatan
by
7.5k points