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The “unstable equilibrium” referred to by Bismarck in the first paragraph is best explained by which of the following developments in European politics?
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The “unstable equilibrium” referred to by Bismarck in the first paragraph is best explained by which of the following developments in European politics?

User The Busy Wizard
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Answer: The map of Europe and the distribution of power in 1871 was very different from that devised at Vienna in 1814–15.

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User Johnatan
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