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The allele that gives you dimples is dominant over the allele for no dimples. One partner in a couple has dimples and the other has no dimples. Would you expect their children to have dimples? Explain as you can, using genetic diagrams to explain your answer.

User Rick Wolff
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Answer:

It is likely that the children of a couple in which one partner has dimples and the other has no dimples will have dimples.

Step-by-step explanation:

In this case, the partner with dimples must have two copies of the dimple allele, while the partner with no dimples must have two copies of the no dimple allele. When these two individuals have children, each child will inherit one copy of each allele from each parent. This means that each child will have one copy of the dimple allele and one copy of the no dimple allele, which means that they will have dimples.

This can be illustrated using a genetic diagram, in which a capital letter represents a dominant allele and a lowercase letter represents a recessive allele. In this case, the dimple allele is represented by the letter "D" and the no dimple allele is represented by the letter "d". The couple in question would be represented as follows:

Parent 1: DD (has dimples)

Parent 2: dd (has no dimples)

When these two individuals have children, each child will inherit one copy of the "D" allele and one copy of the "d" allele, giving them the genotype Dd. This means that they will have dimples, as illustrated below:

Child 1: Dd (has dimples)

Child 2: Dd (has dimples)

Child 3: Dd (has dimples)

etc.

User Bitski
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