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Which of the following is logically equivalent to ∼(∼p⇒q)? a.p^q b. p^~q c. ~p^q d. ~p^~q

User PixieMedia
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Answer:

Explanation:

Solution

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Correct option is D)

p p

∼p⇒q ∼(∼p⇒q)

T T T F

T F T F

F T T F

F F F T

p q p∧q p∧∼q ∼p∧q ∼p∧∼q

T T T F F F

T F F F F F

F T F T T F

F F F F F T

So we see the given relation is logically equivalent to option D, as shown in last column.

User Dan Croak
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