Answer: No, they are not inverses of one another.
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Step-by-step explanation:
There are at least 3 methods we can use to prove the functions aren't inverses of each other.
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Method 1
Let's say we plugged x = 0 into f(x).
The input x = 0 leads to the output y = 1.
Then let's treat y = 1 as the input of the g(x) function, so we'll plug x = 1 into here.
If g(x) was the inverse of f(x), then the g(1) output value should be 0 to get us back where we started. However, we get an output of -3 instead.
This is sufficient evidence to conclude that f(x) and g(x) are not inverses of each other. We only need one counter-example to disprove this claim.
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Method 2
Recall that if f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other, then we have the following two properties
The left hand side of each equation involves the concept of "function composition".
Let's see what f(g(x)) is equal to in this case.
We do not get an output of simply x only, so this is another way to see how we don't have inverses.
Through similar steps, you should find that
which is further confirmation that f(x) and g(x) are not inverses of each other.
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Method 3
Let's ignore g(x) for now. We'll start with f(x) and find the inverse of it.
The process involves this basic outline:
- Replace f(x) with y
- Swap x and y
- Solve for y
So,
Unfortunately we do not end up with -2x-1 as the actual inverse.
So if
was the case, then f(x) and g(x) would be inverses of each other.
Through similar steps, the inverse of
is