1 Answer

Perki · Answer 1 · 2023-08-05T05:12:24+0000

The measure of
$\angle 1$ is
$60^(\circ)$ because it is related to one of the angles of the triangle by the alternate interior angles theorem.

The measure of
$\angle 2$ is
$120^(\circ)$ because it is adjacent to one of the angles in the triangle.

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