68,847 views
18 votes
18 votes
Math Journal Brian says that the expressions 2(x + 2) and 3(x + 1) + 1 are

equivalent because they name the same value when x = 0. Is Brian's reasoning
correct? Explain.

PLEASE HURRY

User Ken DeLong
by
2.7k points

2 Answers

21 votes
21 votes
4(x + 2) your welcome
User ATC
by
2.9k points
13 votes
13 votes

Explanation:

if 2(0+2)=0+4=4 Answer

3(0+1)+1=(0+3)+1=4 Answer

hope it helps

User Joe Mancuso
by
2.8k points