Register
Why do you think rizal wrote the original noli me tangere in spanish, considering that it is the language of the colonizers?.
115k views
3 votes
Why do you think rizal wrote the original noli me tangere in spanish, considering that it is the language of the colonizers?.

User Derhansen
by
6.8k points

1 Answer

5 votes
Answer: Noli me Tangere was originally written in Spanish, so the likelihood that Spanish authorities would read it first was very high;which is what Rizal wanted to happen.
User Vandershraaf
by
6.7k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.3m questions

10.9m answers

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
Link Copied!