1 Answer

Araymer · Answer 1 · 2023-06-11T14:52:27+0000

The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the x-intercept of
f^(-1)(x) .

The function
f^(-1)(x) has a range including all values greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the domain of
f(x) does also.

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