Answer:
Yes, one does equal to zero
Explanation:
Consider two non-zero numbers x and y such that
x = y.
Then x2 = xy.
Subtract the same thing from both sides:
x^2 – y^2= xy – y^2.
Dividing by (x-y), obtain
x + y = y.
Since x = y, we see that
2 y = y.
Thus 2 = 1, since we started with y nonzero.
Subtracting 1 from both sides,
1 = 0.
I am not good at explaining this type of question. so I copied and pasted the explanation part. I hope this helps