Note that the limit of the product of the two functions is equal to the product of its individual limits.
![\lim _(x\to a)f(x)\cdot g(x)=\lim _(x\to a)f(x)\cdot\lim _(x\to a)g(x)](https://img.qammunity.org/2023/formulas/mathematics/college/4p6t9gd2frypyyravb7e2lshym6h4wqcwc.png)
From the problem, we have a limit of a product of two functions x and 1/x, so we can rewrite it as the product of two limits, limit of x and limit of 1/x
Therefore, the equation is True
ANSWER :
True