SOLUTION
Given the question in the question tab, the following are the solution steps to solve the question
STEP 1: Define a countably infinite set
A set is countably infinite if its elements can be put in one-to-one correspondence with the set of natural numbers. In other words, one can count off all elements in the set in such a way that, even though the counting will take forever, you will get to any particular element in a finite amount of time.
STEP 2: Write the given set
![\mleft\lbrace2q\colon q\in Q+\mright\rbrace](https://img.qammunity.org/2023/formulas/mathematics/college/2643izmk1722ipeptms67us0kqhfhd6nnd.png)
This set is read as a set of values 2q such that q is an element of positive rational numbers
STEP 3: Show the proof
![\begin{gathered} \text{Let }Q_(\pm)=\mleft\lbrace q\in Q\colon q>0\mright\rbrace \\ \text{For ev}ery\text{ q}\in Q_+,\text{ there exists at least one pair (m,n)}\in N* N \\ \text{such that q}=(m)/(n) \end{gathered}](https://img.qammunity.org/2023/formulas/mathematics/college/jqz6so59bsbz07my1t9gc79cvvtz4l0que.png)
Therefore, we can find an injection:
![i\colon Q_+\Rightarrow N* N](https://img.qammunity.org/2023/formulas/mathematics/college/2xekkebontobwveqedxi4jbqg2ads6c1d5.png)
By Cartesian Product of Natural Numbers with Itself is Countable, N×N is countable.
Hence Q+ is countable, by Domain of Injection to Countable Set is Countable.
Note that the function defined by is a bijection. Therefore the composition is a bijection. So the given set is countably infinite.