1 Answer

Leeroy · Answer 1 · 2023-03-29T07:35:58+0000

Solution

The rule for negative exponent a^-n = 1/a^n, why it does not apply when a = 0.

when a = 0

$\begin{gathered} a^(-n)=0^(-n)=0 \\ (1)/(a^n)=(1)/(0^n)=\infty,\text{but you cannot divide by zero} \end{gathered}$

Hence the correct answer is Option A

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