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The question: Do you think the difference in means is due to the treatment of music while typing or has it occurred purely by chance? explain your reasoning.

The question: Do you think the difference in means is due to the treatment of music-example-1
User Boaz
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1 Answer

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if it concerns to the treatment of the music, the distribution would be distributed non uniformly, thus the difference must be by chance!

User Makata
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