Question

Please help me ASAP!!!!!!!

Answer 1

Question:

Solution:

By definition we have that:

`(f\circ g)\text{ = f(g(x))}`

On the other hand, it is not always true that

`(f\circ g)\text{ = }f(x)\text{.g(x)}`

In fact, the only case in which the above occurs is when f (x) = g (x) = 1

Thus, we can conclude that the correct answer is:

The statement is not true for all pairs of functions. A statement that is true for every f(x) and g(x) is

`(f\circ g)\text{ = f(g(x))}`