Answer:
Explanation:
This cool problem uses an old trick: multiplying by a cleverly chosen expression for 1 (a fraction with the same numerator and denominator).
That denominator looks kind of familiar. Remember one of the so-called Pythagorean identities?
The denominator of the integrand is just 1 !!!
The integral is now
That little trick is good to know. You may have used it before to rationalize a denominator. Example: