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If f∘g(x)=g∘f(x) , then f and g are inverse of each other. True or False

User Kiskae
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The given statement is


f\circ g(x)=g\circ f(x)

Are inverse of each other

Since the function and its inverse are symmetric around the line y = x, then


f\circ g(x)=g\circ f(x)=x

Then the statement above is false because f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions if


f\circ g(x)=g\circ f(x)=x

It is False

f(x) is the red graph

Its inverse is the blue graph

The green line is y = x

The red and the blue graph are symmetric around the line y = x

So if f(g (x) = g(f(x)) = x

Then f(x) and g(x) are inverse function

If f∘g(x)=g∘f(x) , then f and g are inverse of each other. True or False-example-1
User Morion
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