Question

Can you please help me with this. Last part of the question.

Answer 1

We know that function f(x) is given by

`f(x)=x`

where the slope is the coefficient of the variable x, that is, the slope,m, is

`m=1`

Since g(x) is given by

`g(x)=6\cdot f(x)`

we have that

`g(x)=6x`

where the slope is equal to 6, in other words

`m\longrightarrow m=6*1=6`

Therefore, the slope of the graph of g(x) is 6 times the slope of the graph of f(x).

Since the y-intercept of f(x) is zero, then the y-intercept of g(x) is zero too. Then, the answer is: the y-intercept does not change.