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Line FG passes through points (1, 1) and (3, 3). Line F′G′ is formed by dilating line FG by a factor of 4 about the origin. Which statement is true?Group of answer choicesLine F′G′ is the original line.Lines FG and F′G′ have different slopes.Lines FG and F′G′ are parallel to each other.Lines FG and F′G′ are perpendicular to each other.

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SOLUTION


\begin{gathered} For\text{ line FG, we have points:} \\ F(1,1)\text{ and G\lparen3,3\rparen} \\ \end{gathered}
\begin{gathered} For\text{ line F'G', we have points:} \\ F^(\prime)(4,4)\text{ and G'\lparen12,12\rparen} \end{gathered}

That is the graph.

CONCLUSION

THE TWO LINES WILL HAVE THE SAME SLOPE.

Therefore, they could be considered as parallel since two parallel lines have the same slope.

Line FG passes through points (1, 1) and (3, 3). Line F′G′ is formed by dilating line-example-1
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