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Are the expressions equivalent 8 ÷ 2 and 2 ÷ 8 & why

User BeNdErR
by
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1 Answer

1 vote

Firstly, lets look at the result of the two expressions

8 / 2 = 4

and

2 / 8 = 1 / 4

looking at the results, they are different, therefore they are not equivalent

The answer is No.

And the reason is that both expresions give different results

User Axiverse
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3.9k points