108k views
1 vote
Are f(x) and g(x) inverse functions across the domain (5, + infinity)

Are f(x) and g(x) inverse functions across the domain (5, + infinity)-example-1
User Lazloo Xp
by
7.9k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Given:


\begin{gathered} F(x)=√(x-5)+4 \\ G(x)=(x-4)^2+5 \end{gathered}

Required:

Find F(x) and G(x) are inverse functions or not.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that


\begin{gathered} F(x)=√(x-5)+4 \\ G(x)=(x-4)^(2)+5 \end{gathered}

Let


F(x)=y
\begin{gathered} y=√(x-5)+4 \\ y-4=√(x-5) \end{gathered}

Take the square on both sides.


(y-4)^2=x-5

Interchange x and y as:


\begin{gathered} (x-4)^2=y-5 \\ y=(x-4)^2+5 \end{gathered}

Substitute y = G(x)


G(x)=(x-4)^2+5

This is the G(x) function.

So F(x) and G(x) are inverse functions.


\begin{gathered} G(x)-5=(x-4)^2 \\ √(G(x)-5)=x-4 \\ x=√(G(x)-5)+4 \end{gathered}

Final Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

User Doug Kimzey
by
8.4k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories