Why did the Spanish government first allow Anglo-Americans to settle in modern-day Texas?
A) They knew this would weaken the Mexican government, whom the Spanish opposed.
B) Spain was unable to convince its own citizens to colonize the sparsely populated area.
C) Spain believed Anglo-American settlers would quickly adopt the Spanish culture and way of life.
D) The Mexican government had been petitioning for Anglo-American settlers in the region for years.