230k views
2 votes
What was Britain's "empire of goods" in the 1740s?

a. the contrast between Britain's material wealth and its relative lack of overseas colonies
b. a system of commercial exchange that linked people around the globe through the commodities they consumed
c. the British monopoly on shipping manufactured goods to North America
d. a surplus between the amount of goods produced in Britain versus the global demand

User Cgmb
by
7.5k points

1 Answer

7 votes
b. a system of commercial exchange that linked people around the globe through the commodities they consumed
User Richard Lee
by
7.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.