Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Considering
, then
This is the Cauchy–Schwarz Inequality, therefore
We have the equation
We can use the Cauchy–Schwarz Inequality because
and
are greater than 0. In fact,
. Using the Cauchy–Schwarz Inequality, we have
and the equation holds for
Therefore, once we can write
It is the same thing for cosine, thus
Once
dividing both numerator and denominator by
, we get
Therefore, it is proved that