Why by 1640 did slavery become a race based institution in the United States

Josh Withee asked May 21, 2022

113,465 views

22 votes

Josh Withee asked May 21, 2022

2.4k points

Your comment on this question:

Email me at this address if a comment is added after mine:Email me if a comment is added after mine

Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.

Email me at this address if my answer is selected or commented on:Email me if my answer is selected or commented on

Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.

14 votes

because it helped the upper classes maintain their dominance over the lower classes.

Yivo answered May 28, 2022

by Yivo

2.7k points

Email me at this address if a comment is added after mine:Email me if a comment is added after mine

Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

1.6m questions

2.0m answers