Explanation:
is there something missing in the question ?
or is this meant to be a trick question ?
let me repeat :
pot1 contains 5 black and 7 white beads
pot2 contains 6 white beads (and nothing else, right ?)
then one bead is drawn from each pot.
so, 1 bead from pot1, and 1 bead from pot2.
the bead from pot1 is either white or black.
the bead from pot2 is white for sure.
so, the probability to get at least 1 white bead is 100% or 1, as there will be always the white bead taken from pot2.