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A large restaurant chain is curious what proportion of their customers in a given day are new customers. They are thinking of taking a sample of either n=50 or n=100 customers and building a one-sample z interval for a proportion using the data from the sample. Assuming the sample proportion is the same in each sample, what is true about the margins of error from these two samples?

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Final answer:

When comparing samples of n=50 and n=100 with the same sample proportion, the margin of error for the sample of n=100 would be smaller, leading to a more precise estimate for the restaurant chain's proportion of new customers.

Step-by-step explanation:

The restaurant chain is dealing with a proportion problem because it wants to determine what proportion of their customers are new. The sample proportion is a categorical variable that represents a success (a new customer) or a failure (not a new customer). Since the central limit theorem for proportions applies here, the distribution of the sample proportions (P') is approximately normal with a mean equal to the population proportion (p) and a standard deviation equal to √p(1-p)/n.

Using the provided information, we know that when increasing the sample size from n=50 to n=100, the margin of error will decrease. This is because the margin of error is inversely proportional to the square root of the sample size (n). Thus, the larger the sample size, the smaller the margin of error, assuming the sample proportion remains the same. This is essential in designing the confidence interval for a proportion, where the desired precision is to be met without unnecessarily inflating the sample size.

Therefore, in this case, the margin of error for a sample of n=100 would be smaller than that of a sample of n=50, resulting in a more precise estimate for a one-sample z interval for a proportion.

User Maulrus
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10 votes

Answer:

none of the above

User Hmdeep
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