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The domain of f(x)=cosx

must be restricted to all real numbers in order for the function to have an inverse function. The domain of g(x)=arccos(x)
is −1≤x≤1
and its range is 0≤x≤π
.
is this correct ?

The domain of f(x)=cosx must be restricted to all real numbers in order for the function-example-1

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

Not completely sure for the rest, but I believe the range is incorrect: the range represents y-values, not x-values.

So it should be 0 ≤ y ≤ π

User Paul Klint
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