38.1k views
7 votes
A physician assistant orders 40mg of Lasix to be injected in office. If you have

60mg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?

User Tom Mac
by
5.4k points

2 Answers

8 votes

Explanation:

The way to solve this is 60mg/1 - ml =

1ml = 1000mg - 60 mg = 940 mg left or .94 ml left or 47/50

User Mdd
by
6.0k points
3 votes

answer:0.70

Explanation:

(DO/DH x Q)

40mg/60mg x 1=0.70

User Bruce Chen
by
6.1k points