95.7k views
1 vote
a bag contains 6 white marbles and 4 black marbles. a marble is drawn without replacing the first one. what is the probability of drawing a white marble on the first draw, followed by a white marble on the second?

2 Answers

8 votes

Answer:

30/90 or 1/3

Explanation:

This is because we know that 6+4=10. So we know the odds of drawing a white marble first is 6/10. And if we draw one without replacing it. This makes the second time 5/9 for white and 4/9 for black. We can then multiply 6/10 by 5/9 and get 30/90 which is equal to 1/3.

Hope this helps!

User Srinivas ML
by
8.9k points
11 votes

Answer:

1/3

Explanation:

P=6/10 ×5/9=30/90=1/3

User Danwoods
by
7.4k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories