A 23 year-old female presents with a 24-hour history of watery diarrhea, nausea and vomiting after returning from a cruise. On exam, the vitals reveal HR 120, BP 90/60, and RR 20. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with hyperactive bowel sounds. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time? A. loperamide (Imodium) B. IV hydration C. bismuth sulfate (Pepto bismol) D. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)