Register
Why is the use of formal tone appropropriate for the first amendment?
103k views
4 votes
Why is the use of formal tone appropropriate for the first amendment?

User Mpmeyer
by
7.5k points

1 Answer

1 vote
The use of formal tone for the first amendment because a formal tone makes the amendment sound serious, so it shows that it's a serious script
User Mcmaloney
by
8.6k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Other Questions

Passe para a voz passiva: - Kevin asked Dennis a question -Somebody Build the house last year -She gives him a box
Who is the author of Alice's Adventures in Wonderland'??
If you are writing a persuasive essay in favor of banning vending machines in schools, which is a counterargument you might anticipate?
Transforme em voz passiva: They don't speak English in this shop
Which sentence has a misplaced adjective phrase? A. A clown at the fair with pink hair gave me a balloon. B. Marjorie is my cousin from Florida. C. My sister is the girl in the basketball jersey. D. That
Link Copied!