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The domain of f(x) is equal to the range of f^(-1)(x). A. True B. False

User Tjwallace
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Final answer:

The statement is true: the domain of a function is equal to the range of its inverse function.

Step-by-step explanation:

The statement in the question is True. The domain of a function is the set of all possible input values that the function can accept, while the range of a function is the set of all possible output values. The inverse function, denoted by f^(-1)(x), will have its domain and range swapped compared to the original function f(x). Therefore, if the domain of f(x) is equal to the range of f^(-1)(x), it means that the input values of f(x) are the same as the output values of f^(-1)(x), which is true.

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User JeremyE
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