Explanation:
4 chips in total.
2 chips have a 1.
1 chip has a 3.
1 chip has a 5.
to get 2 chips with the same number it must be the chips with the number 1.
the text does not say, but I assume that after pulling the first chip it is not put back into the box for the second pull.
the probabilty to have a 1 in the first pull is
2/4 = 1/2
then the probabilty to pull the remaining 1 in the second pull is
1/3
as there are only 3 coins left for the second pull.
so, the probabilty to pull 2 times a 1 is
1/2 × 1/3 = 1/6
that automatically means that getting 2 different numbers (which is anything else than getting the two 1s) has the probability
1 - 1/6 = 5/6
"to be fair" as I understand it means that the expected value at the end of e.g. 6 attempts is a simple $0.
it would mean we expect in 6 attempts to get 5 times a result with 2 different numbers with -$1 each. that is -$5 in total.
and we expect one time to get 2 equal numbers.
in order to make it a fair 0, this case has to compensate for the other -$5. and so, the winning for having two equal numbers must be $5.
and then the sum of -$5 and $5 is the fair $0 balance.
so, the winning value for getting 2 equal numbers should be $5 to be totally fair.