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(4 points) Let X=0,1,2,3,4 and defined f: X → X by f(n)=2 n mod 5 , for n in X . Is f surjective? Explain why or why not.

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Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

To determine whether the function f: X → X defined as f(n) = 2n mod 5 is surjective, we need to check if every element in the codomain X has a corresponding pre-image in the domain X.

In this case, the domain X is {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}, and the codomain X is also {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. To show that the function f is surjective, we need to demonstrate that for every element y in the codomain X, there exists an element x in the domain X such that f(x) = y.

Let's analyze each element in the codomain X and find its corresponding pre-image in the domain X:

1. For y = 0: f(x) = 2x mod 5. The only x in the domain X that satisfies f(x) = 0 is x = 0. Thus, there exists a pre-image for y = 0.

2. For y = 1: f(x) = 2x mod 5. The only x in the domain X that satisfies f(x) = 1 is x = 3. Thus, there exists a pre-image for y = 1.

3. For y = 2: f(x) = 2x mod 5. The only x in the domain X that satisfies f(x) = 2 is x = 1. Thus, there exists a pre-image for y = 2.

4. For y = 3: f(x) = 2x mod 5. The only x in the domain X that satisfies f(x) = 3 is x = 4. Thus, there exists a pre-image for y = 3.

5. For y = 4: f(x) = 2x mod 5. The only x in the domain X that satisfies f(x) = 4 is x = 2. Thus, there exists a pre-image for y = 4.

Since we have found a pre-image in the domain X for each element in the codomain X, we can conclude that the function f is surjective.

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