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1. Verify the following identity. (5 points) [1/tan(x)] + tan(x) = 1/[sin(x)cos(x)]

User Ree
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1 Answer

5 votes

Certainly! Here is the verification of the given identity :

We need to verify the identity:


\displaystyle (1)/(\tan(x)) + \tan(x) = (1)/(\sin(x)\cos(x)).

To do this, let's start by expressing
\displaystyle (1)/(\tan(x)) and
\displaystyle (1)/(\sin(x)\cos(x)) in terms of sine and cosine functions.

Recall that
\displaystyle \tan(x) = (\sin(x))/(\cos(x)).

Therefore,
\displaystyle (1)/(\tan(x)) =(1)/((\sin(x))/(\cos(x))) = (\cos(x))/(\sin(x)).

Now, let's substitute these expressions into the given identity:


\displaystyle (1)/(\tan(x)) + \tan(x) = (1)/(\sin(x)\cos(x)).

Substituting
\displaystyle (1)/(\tan(x)) = (\cos(x))/(\sin(x)):


\displaystyle (\cos(x))/(\sin(x)) + \tan(x) = (1)/(\sin(x)\cos(x)).

To simplify the left side, we need a common denominator. The common denominator is
\displaystyle \sin(x)\cos(x).

So, we rewrite the left side:


\displaystyle (\cos(x))/(\sin(x)) + \tan(x) = (\cos(x))/(\sin(x)) + (\sin(x))/(\cos(x)).

Combining the fractions over the common denominator:


\displaystyle (\cos(x) \cdot \cos(x) + \sin(x) \cdot \sin(x))/(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x)).

Using the Pythagorean identity
\displaystyle \cos^2(x) + \sin^2(x) = 1:


\displaystyle (1)/(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x)).

Hence, we have shown that:


\displaystyle (1)/(\tan(x)) + \tan(x) = (1)/(\sin(x) \cdot \cos(x)).

Thus, the given identity has been verified.


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User Snowburnt
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