Answer:
the value of the given particular integral is 0 because 0 + 0 = 0.
Explanation:
We are given the following integral:
1/((D^2) +4){2 sin(x) cos(x) + 3 cos(x)}
Let's simplify the denominator first:
(D^2 + 4) = (D^2 + 2^2)
This can be written as:
(D + 2i)(D - 2i)
Now let's express the numerator in partial fractions:
2 sin(x) cos(x) + 3 cos(x) = A(D + 2i) + B(D - 2i)
Solving for A and B:
Let D = -2i, then we have:
A(-2i + 2i) = 3(-2i)
0 = -6i
This implies that A = 0.
Similarly, when we let D = 2i, we obtain:
B(2i - 2i) = 3(2i)
0 = 6i
This implies that B = 0.
Therefore, the original integral simplifies to:
0 + 0 = 0