86.3k views
0 votes
Rewrite the expression cos(tan-1(x)) as an algebraic expression in x

User Macbutch
by
8.4k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Final answer:

To rewrite cos(tan^-1(x)) as an algebraic expression in x, we use a right-triangle approach to get the expression 1 / √(1 + x^2).

Step-by-step explanation:

To rewrite the expression cos(tan-1(x)) as an algebraic expression in x, we will use a right-triangle representation of trigonometric functions. Imagine a right triangle where the angle opposite 'x' is the tan-1(x), which means that the opposite side is x and the adjacent side is 1 (since tan is the ratio of the opposite side to the adjacent side).

By the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse (h) can be represented as h = √(1 + x2). Now cos(tan-1(x)) is the adjacent side over the hypotenuse, leading to the algebraic expression cos(tan-1(x)) = 1 / √(1 + x2).

User Catdotgif
by
7.6k points
5 votes


$\cos\left(\tan^(-1) x\right)$ can be expressed algebraically as
$√(1 - x^2)$.

Let's use the trigonometric identity
$\tan^(-1) x = (\pi)/(2) - \cos^(-1) x$ to rewrite the given expression
$\cos\left(\tan^(-1) x\right)$ in terms of
$x$:


\cos\left(\tan^(-1) x\right) &= \cos\left((\pi)/(2) - \cos^(-1) x\right)

Now, we can use the cosine of the difference identity, which states that
$\cos(a - b) = \cos a \cos b + \sin a \sin b$.

In this case, let
$a = (\pi)/(2)$ and
$b = \cos^(-1) x$:


\cos\left((\pi)/(2) - \cos^(-1) x\right) &= \cos\left((\pi)/(2)\right) \cos\left(\cos^(-1) x\right) + \sin\left((\pi)/(2)\right) \sin\left(\cos^(-1) x\right)\\&= 0 \cdot \cos^(-1) x + 1 \cdot \sin\left(\cos^(-1) x\right)\\&= \sin\left(\cos^(-1) x\right)

Finally, using the fact that
$\sin(\cos^(-1) x) = √(1 - x^2)$, the expression becomes:


\sin\left(\cos^(-1) x\right) &= √(1 - x^2)

User Mdoar
by
8.6k points

No related questions found