176k views
0 votes
Prove that for all whole values of n the value of the expression (n-3)(n+2)-(n-3)(n+8) is divisible by 6.

User CreativePS
by
7.4k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

Hence, n 3 −n=n(n+1)(n−1) is divisible by 6.

Explanation:

The condition for any number to be divisible by 6 is that the number must be individually divisible by 3 and 2.

Check whether n 3−n is divisible by 3.

n3−n=n(n+1)(n−1)

When a number is divided by 3 then by the remainder theorem, the remainder obtained is either 0 or 1 or 2.

n=3p or n=3p+1 or n=3p+2, where p is some integer.

If n=3p, then the number is divisible by 3.

If n=3p+1, then n−1=3p+1−1=3p. The number is divisible by 3.

If n=3p+2, then n+1=3p+2+1=3(p+1). The number is divisible by 3.

So, any number in the form of n

3

−n=n(n+1)(n−1) is divisible by 3.

Check whether n

3

−n is divisible by 2.

When a number is divided by 2, the remainder obtained is either 0 or 1 by the remainder theorem.

n=2p or n=2p+1, where p is some integer.

If n=2p, then the number is divisible by 2.

If n=2p+1 then n−1=2p+1−1=2p. The number is divisible by 2.

So, any number in the form of n

3

−n=n(n+1)(n−1) is divisible by 2.

Since, the given number n

3

−n=n(n+1)(n−1) is divisible by both 3 and 2. Therefore, according to the divisibility rule of 6, the given number is divisible by 6.

User Rahul Rathore
by
8.1k points
3 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

Let's simplify the equation first:

(n-3)(n+2)-(n-3)(n+8)

= n² - n - 6 - (n² + 5n - 24)

= n² - n - 6 - n² - 5n +24

= -6n - 18

Divisible means that the equation can be divided by 6 with no remainder.

If I divide the equation by 6, I get (-n-3)

It goes in evenly, therefore it is divisible by 6

User Amin Ya
by
8.5k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories