128k views
0 votes
A jar contains 5 red chips, 3 blue chips, 6 white chips, and 10 green chips. Two chips are randomly drawn and not replaced.

What is the probability the chips drawn are red then blue.

User MilanG
by
8.3k points

1 Answer

2 votes
To find the probability of drawing a red chip followed by a blue chip without replacement, we need to calculate the probability of each event separately and then multiply them together.

The probability of drawing a red chip on the first draw is:
P(red on first draw) = Number of red chips / Total number of chips
= 5 / (5 + 3 + 6 + 10)
= 5 / 24

After the first chip is drawn without replacement, there are now 23 chips left in the jar. The probability of drawing a blue chip on the second draw, given that the first chip was red and not replaced, is:
P(blue on second draw) = Number of blue chips / Remaining number of chips
= 3 / 23

To find the probability of both events occurring, we multiply the probabilities together:
P(red then blue) = P(red on first draw) * P(blue on second draw)
= (5 / 24) * (3 / 23)
= 15 / 552

Therefore, the probability of drawing a red chip followed by a blue chip without replacement is 15/552.
User Selalerer
by
9.3k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories