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Explain why inequality is the product of post-industrialization. (Think....why 5 points

can some people afford things when others cannot...) Please use a
paragraph format: 4-6 well constructed sentences!
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User Adie
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Inequality is a product of post-industrialization because the shift from an industrial to a service-based economy has led to the concentration of wealth and power in the hands of a few. The rise of technology and automation has led to the displacement of workers in traditional industries, resulting in job losses and wage stagnation for many. At the same time, the service sector has grown, but with lower-paying jobs and fewer benefits. This has created a divide between those who have the skills and education to thrive in the new economy and those who do not.

Furthermore, the globalization of the economy has resulted in the outsourcing of jobs to countries with lower labor costs, further exacerbating the inequality gap. Those who own or invest in multinational corporations have benefited greatly from this trend, while many workers have been left behind. Additionally, the tax policies and regulations that govern the economy have favored the wealthy and large corporations, making it easier for them to accumulate and keep their wealth.

Overall, post-industrialization has created a system that benefits the few at the expense of the many. The concentration of wealth and power in the hands of a few has led to the perpetuation of inequality, making it difficult for some to afford basic necessities and opportunities that others take for granted. As a result, addressing inequality requires comprehensive solutions that address the root causes of the problem, including education and training, fair tax policies, and regulations that promote a more equitable distribution of wealth and power.
User Ludwo
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