203k views
3 votes
If 0<=k<(pi/2) and the areas under the curve y=cosx from x=k to x=(pi/2) is 0.1, then k=

User InkHeart
by
7.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer: The integral of the function y = cos(x) from x = k to x = π/2 represents the area under the curve of the function between those limits. We can evaluate this integral as follows:

∫[k, π/2] cos(x) dx = sin(k) - sin(π/2) = sin(k) - 1

We are given that this area is 0.1, so we can write:

0.1 = sin(k) - 1

Adding 1 to both sides gives:

1.1 = sin(k)

To solve for k, we take the inverse sine (or arcsine) of both sides, keeping in mind that k is between 0 and π/2:

k = arcsin(1.1)

However, arcsin(1.1) is not a real number since the sine function is only defined between -1 and 1. Therefore, there is no value of k that satisfies the given conditions.

User Pokemzok
by
7.8k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories