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If 0<=k<(pi/2) and the areas under the curve y=cosx from x=k to x=(pi/2) is 0.1, then k=

User InkHeart
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Answer: The integral of the function y = cos(x) from x = k to x = π/2 represents the area under the curve of the function between those limits. We can evaluate this integral as follows:

∫[k, π/2] cos(x) dx = sin(k) - sin(π/2) = sin(k) - 1

We are given that this area is 0.1, so we can write:

0.1 = sin(k) - 1

Adding 1 to both sides gives:

1.1 = sin(k)

To solve for k, we take the inverse sine (or arcsine) of both sides, keeping in mind that k is between 0 and π/2:

k = arcsin(1.1)

However, arcsin(1.1) is not a real number since the sine function is only defined between -1 and 1. Therefore, there is no value of k that satisfies the given conditions.

User Pokemzok
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