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5 votes
Is 20/√40 the same as 1/√2

User Flacnut
by
7.9k points

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

Explanation:


√(40) =
√(4) x
√(10) =
2\sqrt{10


(20)/(2√(10) ) =
(10)/(√(10) )


(10)/(√(10) ) * (√(10) )/(√(10) ) = (10√(10) )/(10) = √(10) }


(1)/(√(2) ) = (1)/(√(2) ) * (√(2) )/(√(2) ) = (√(2) )/(2)

From the above since
(20)/(√(40) ) is not equal to
(1)/(√(2) ) it implies that they are not the same

User Mysl
by
8.9k points
4 votes
Yes, 20/√40 is the same as 1/√2.

To see why, we can simplify 20/√40 as follows:

20/√40 = (20/2√10) = 10/√10

Now, we can simplify the denominator of 10/√10 by multiplying by √10/√10:

10/√10 = (10/√10) x (√10/√10) = 10√10/10 = √10

Therefore, 20/√40 simplifies to √10.

Similarly, we can simplify 1/√2 as:

1/√2 = (1/√2) x (√2/√2) = √2/2

Since √10 and √2/2 are not the same, we can conclude that 20/√40 is not the same as 1/√2.
User Kaarel Purde
by
9.0k points