Answer: Kingdoms. Absolutic for France. Colonial and oligarchic for America
Explanation: Officialy, before their revolution, they were both a kingdom. Sort of. The proto-US was only a part of the United Kingdom of Great-Britain. Not the whole kingdom itself like France. In fact, it wasn't part of the UK, they were more depencies.
And wheras in France, the kingdom was absolutic. Meaning, in theory, can do whatever he wants (in theory, because nobles use the fronde to contest the king, even not so long before revolution).
whereas England has also a king, but the real power was already in the hand of the Parliament at least more than half of a century (as far as I know) decades before the American Revolution, despite the founding father using the image (*cough* propagand *cough*) of the tyranny of king George III. However, the Americans colonist were not represented in the UK parliament and still heavy tax. But what was propably the more important, the colonists were not considered as the equal as the people still in Europe. In fact, even in the Portuguese or Spanish colonial american empires, people born in these colonies were considered as inferior. Even white people. Even if their two parent came from the metropol. And that despite, Spain loosely seeing its colonies as an integral part of Spain itself, not like the UK.